I’m talking about a fan theory, that if true doesn’t drastically upend the fundamentals of the fiction it is set in.
Mine is that in the American Dad episode ‘Can I Be Frank With You’, that Snot’s uncle is actually just another Roger persona. He appears suddenly and conveniently to pitch a bizarre scheme, he loves hanging around with teen boys and doing drugs, and the very instant that the plan has a setback he kills himself out of sight of everyone else. That’s just Roger in a suit and glasses.
Edit: Ok, so, people are having trouble with the word “inconsequential”.
If you’re going to use ancient letters use pre-vowel shift vowels too, you half assed coward.
Ðose vowels did shift ðough, þorn and eð represent sounds ðat only lost ðeir own letters because of importing type from countries ðat didn’t have ðose sounds.
Ðey can be written now ðough, so ð actual reason for not using ðem is null. Ð old vowels however, have well and truly gone, and so spelling wið old vowel sounds in mind isn’t analogous.
Yeah…? Then tell me why in fuck’s name (or should it be facks?) ‘oo’ can represent six different sounds (food, book, door, blood, cooperation, brooch), for instance, and how to tell them apart, or why the letters ‘a’, ‘e’, ‘o’, ‘aa’, and ‘ea’ are used to represent the same exact sound in the words father, sergeant, body, bazaar, and heart…
Let me assure you that this nonsense is many orders of magnitude more confusing to people learning English as a second language than the ‘th’ shit!
What makes you so sure? One letter for one sound is a lot less complicated ðan two letters representing two sounds.
Also, you clearly didn’t check my profile where I have a worksheet revising all ðose oðer issues too.
I just don’t use ðem because I know asshats like you will just get even angrier if I start taking you up on ðat supposed concern and I don’t feel like dealing wið you all over every word I write.
Most languages that use alphabets have digraphs representing different sounds than their composing letters. It’s trivial to understand that ‘th’ represents a different sound than ‘t’ or ‘h’.
Most sane languages, on the other hand, don’t use the same letter or digraph to represent half a dozen different sounds (and when they do they use diacritic marks to distinguish them… which English only uses, without explanation, in borrowed words like fiancé or façade, which might actually be more confusing to native speakers than to ESL ones), or half a dozen letters and digraphs to represent the same sound.
I’ve got enough of a headache from deciphering your posts, thank you
Pot, kettle…
Really? They read pretty straightforward to me. THe only real issue I have is that I can’t hear a distinction between a thorn and an eth, so the usage seems arbitrary to me. I know that Icelandic people say there’s a difference, and at least one has tried to explain it, but I can’t hear it.
Removed by mod
You have to be trolling lmao you can’t actually be this mad
Also aren’t Thomas and Thai the same sound?
How mad would you feel if some innocent fun you were up to got you accosted as if you’d gone about shooting everyone’s firstborn in ð head?